By: ChrisR

ChrisR — Sun, 07 May 2023 12:24:38 +0000

If it’s all “just convention,” all just “parliamentary privilege,” bearing in mind, last time I looked, the UK is supposed to be a democracy, then WHY is this sort of thing done in secret? That is “covered up” for FIFTY (yes 50) YEARS?

No, whatever the objections to this, from the wibbling heads of the pro-monarchists, ALLOWING this sort of thing to be kept secret for 50 years, in a “democracy” is INEXCUSABLE!! In fact noy only inexcusable is SHOWS, those at the top, are too embarrassed, think it’s utterly shameful, to allow this consent mechanism to be made public at the time.

Why, you might ask? Because this tiny minority of people, “at the top” can only get away with this abuse of power, in a democracy, when they need secrecy, going about their business in the dark, thinking no one will be looking at their thieving behaviour. It’s this “going about their business in the dark, when they think no one will find out” that HAS to stop, Today!

By: Anonymous

Anonymous — Mon, 27 Jun 2022 15:54:20 +0000

This convention was used by the Royal Family to their advantage on several occasions; by the Queen in the 1980s to exempt her from certain disclosure legislation in terms of shareholdings, and by Prince Charles, who has used his power of consent over many years, starting in 1967, and most recently in 2002 with the Prince’s consent on the Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002.

It would be useful to know more about the shareholdings disclosure legislation. What is so reprehensible about “the Prince’s consent on the Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002” ? In fact, how did his consent actually make itself felt ?

Comments on: What is Queen’s consent and why it matters

By: ChrisR

By: Anonymous